Reading an article today and came across this statement:
"In no area of criminal law is a victim able to be cross-examined in court by the person accused of harming them.
And yet in family law that is exactly what happens on a regular basis."
Is this correct? If not, what is it leaving out exactly?
"In no area of criminal law is a victim able to be cross-examined in court by the person accused of harming them.
And yet in family law that is exactly what happens on a regular basis."
Is this correct? If not, what is it leaving out exactly?