Thank you for providing me with an opportunity to learn.
You may state your preferred channel of communication, and this should be adhered to. However, if you break that and communicate via another method then the ACCC/ASIC
DebtCollection Guideline stipulates the collector should not ignore that communication and should attempt contact via the same channel.
Yes i am aware of that but i chose not address the issue.
"Don’t do this if there is a possibility the debt may be statute barred as it could be considered an acknowledgment of debt. Let the debt be established first. If you are legally obliged to pay it, saying you will makes no difference to its legitimacy." - This is correct but again i did not address it due to time.
"No and no. There’s no need for either of these things.
Debts can take many forms, not all of which need an ‘invoice’. If it’s a
judgment debt, for example, then you’re not going to get an invoice and any sworn
affidavit will be going to the court for enforcement purposes"
The law is based on the principle that he who accuses must prove their claim. Yes, it cannot become a judgment debt until the court has heard the application for a judgment. Untll then they have an obligation to prove their claim to the alleged borrower."
If they are not prepared to provide proof of claim to the borrower what right can they claim to have on the borrower? Further; how can a court grant a judgment debt when the Collector has refused to provide proof of claim to the alleged debtor? How can any such grant be fair and just.
I am aware however from anecdotal evidence that DCs are getting their judgments just for the asking even after refusing to provide proof of claim to the alleged debtor. Does the legal profession endorse such behaviour by the courts?
i did not not address stat barred but yes you are correct.
"Completely wrong. Assignment of debts is valid and allowed under the law. What a creditor chooses to sell your debt for is irrelevant to you – you continue to owe the full amount of the debt as it stands. If they choose to sell at a discounted rate to obtain some money now rather than waiting for the time and possibility you may pay, that’s their prerogative."
"This is maybe what the Parliament intended when they wrote this clause but there is no reason those words cannot be interpreted as stated." When the bank sells the debt they are out of the whole deal. They no longer have any claim on the debtor. Its then between the alleged debtor and the DC. If the DC is a debt buyer then every single cent they get from the debtor will go nowhere other than in the DC's pocket. Not one single cent will go back to the bank so why should the debtor pay the DC anything when they have no contract with them. (but yes I am aware that the law enables this to be done - I cant think of the term used, sorry) but so much for fair and just laws.
"In any case, ‘hand signed’ is not required and a thing of the past. For example each state, and the
Commonwealth, has electronic transactions
legislation which validate electronic signatures in many circumstances. A statement of account, to be compliant with the National Credit Code, does not require a signature at all."
agreed - I think everyone is aware of this and concerned about this very worrying trend. This is may be legal but is it lawful and more importantly is it fair and just law for consumers? This is issue not other arguments. Full Disclosure is easily avoided from the merchants perspective under such a regime. The consumer has only one chance to read and hopefully, print out the contract. From what I understand, its all but impossible for a consumer to obtain a written copy of the "agreement" from the banks after the time they have clicked the 'yes' button.
"Further, don’t expect that the ‘contract’ will confirm ‘all conditions are fully disclosed’ (my argument exactly). Bear in mind there are valid ways to disclose beyond simply putting words in a contract."
Why do banks etc not choose to put full disclosure words into the contract.? What is it the banks etc are intending to hide or to have scope to withhold from the consumer?? Do consumers have the same rights to only partly disclose relevant information or to provide it to the bank after they have got the loan?
IMO, we have a legal system but thats not necessarily the same thing as a justice system.
thanks