1. The Road Rules apply according to public access and a lands "purpose" or "usage" - not "ownership". It is therefore irrelevant that the land is private property. The application of the law here is exactly the same as it applies to a shopping centre car park. Even though the land is private property, the fact that it's open to the public and is either designed for, or mainly used for a particular purpose covered by the Road Rules means that the Road Rules apply to that land.
The land in this case is clearly open to the public, therefore the only question is whether or not the circumstances meet the criteria for section 197...
2. The land in question is a footpath as defined by the Road Rules:
Note the words
"is designated for, or has as one of its main uses". Like many definitions, this one is based solely on access and purpose or usage. Land ownership is not a factor and is not something that a court can even consider, because ownership has nothing to do with the law being applied in the case.
Since the land in question is open to the public and is mainly used by pedestrians (other than when motor bikes are parked there contrary to the no parking sign), it meets this definition and is therefore a footpath for the purpose of the Road Rules. Therefore...
3. Road Rule 197 applies to the land in question.
4. Section 197 applies to riders of motor bikes.
There is absolutely no doubt that the infringement is valid. It all comes down to two facts:
- the land is open to the public; and
- the land is mainly used by pedestrians.
There's no way you can successfully argue against either of those facts. Who owns the land is totally irrelevant under the law being applied in the case.