OK. So it never really ends, does it? It turns out that our parenting orders are just vague enough that there's some confusion about my time with the children over the Easter holidays. Here in Victoria at least, school holidays started on Friday 8th April. School officially goes back on Tuesday 26th April since Monday is Anzac Day. My ex and I are (at least as things stand) in a disagreement. Our orders specify my Easter school holidays time for the following:
That the Father spend the following additional time with the children as follows:-
* For the Term 1 2022 school holidays from 10am Friday 8 April 2022 to 10am Monday 11 April 2022 and 5.30pm Easter Saturday 16 April 2022 until 5.30pm Tuesday 19 April 2022
and then in a separate paragraph addressing other things:
That the Father’s time be suspended at times as follows:-
(a) During school holiday periods the father’s term time be suspended and resume thereafter as if the holidays had not occurred
Either by accident or otherwise, there is nothing contained in the orders for the weekend from Friday 22nd to Sunday 24th which normally be my weekend with the children. My ex believes that since school doesn't return until Tuesday the 26th April, I would not have that weekend. I believe that technically the last day of the school holidays should be Friday 22nd since it's the last weekday (that isn't a public holiday) prior to school starting. She believes that we should go by the gazetted school terms (of course she would since it advantages her).
Normally I would not make a big deal of this, but this was not in the spirit of the mediation that produced these parenting orders by consent. If she is right, effectively that means that I have LESS time than normal with the children during the school holidays than I would normally have during the rest of the year. The principle by which we were negotiating the Easter holidays was that they should be split near enough 50/50 and the main reason we didn't agree on larger blocks of time was that the 4 day Easter break would have fallen mainly on one person's time, so we agreed to split that 4 day period in half. However, I don't believe it was ever intended that I would not have any time from Tuesday 19th onwards, and I feel that the assumption was that the last day of the school holidays would be Friday 22nd and we would resume normal time from then onwards. Especially since that would normally have been my weekend. If what my ex says is correct, I would not have a full weekend with the children for 4 weeks, when it should normally be every second weekend and INCREASED during school holiday periods.
The other confusing thing in our orders is that it specifies ADDITIONAL time, and yet it's not really additional if my regular time is suspended. It's just substituted rather than additional time. I suspect this is just a quirk of our orders that could have/should have been weeded out but nobody noticed at the time.
My question, summarised, is this:
Is there a legal basis for assuming that school holiday periods are as officially gazetted (which is inclusive of weekends right up to the morning of the first day back at school), or are they assumed to be until the last weekday that would normally have been a school day had it not been for the holidays? Or is there effectively no precedent and it's up to parents to figure it out? I've tried to research this point prior to posting, and I haven't been able to find anything conclusive.
That the Father spend the following additional time with the children as follows:-
* For the Term 1 2022 school holidays from 10am Friday 8 April 2022 to 10am Monday 11 April 2022 and 5.30pm Easter Saturday 16 April 2022 until 5.30pm Tuesday 19 April 2022
and then in a separate paragraph addressing other things:
That the Father’s time be suspended at times as follows:-
(a) During school holiday periods the father’s term time be suspended and resume thereafter as if the holidays had not occurred
Either by accident or otherwise, there is nothing contained in the orders for the weekend from Friday 22nd to Sunday 24th which normally be my weekend with the children. My ex believes that since school doesn't return until Tuesday the 26th April, I would not have that weekend. I believe that technically the last day of the school holidays should be Friday 22nd since it's the last weekday (that isn't a public holiday) prior to school starting. She believes that we should go by the gazetted school terms (of course she would since it advantages her).
Normally I would not make a big deal of this, but this was not in the spirit of the mediation that produced these parenting orders by consent. If she is right, effectively that means that I have LESS time than normal with the children during the school holidays than I would normally have during the rest of the year. The principle by which we were negotiating the Easter holidays was that they should be split near enough 50/50 and the main reason we didn't agree on larger blocks of time was that the 4 day Easter break would have fallen mainly on one person's time, so we agreed to split that 4 day period in half. However, I don't believe it was ever intended that I would not have any time from Tuesday 19th onwards, and I feel that the assumption was that the last day of the school holidays would be Friday 22nd and we would resume normal time from then onwards. Especially since that would normally have been my weekend. If what my ex says is correct, I would not have a full weekend with the children for 4 weeks, when it should normally be every second weekend and INCREASED during school holiday periods.
The other confusing thing in our orders is that it specifies ADDITIONAL time, and yet it's not really additional if my regular time is suspended. It's just substituted rather than additional time. I suspect this is just a quirk of our orders that could have/should have been weeded out but nobody noticed at the time.
My question, summarised, is this:
Is there a legal basis for assuming that school holiday periods are as officially gazetted (which is inclusive of weekends right up to the morning of the first day back at school), or are they assumed to be until the last weekday that would normally have been a school day had it not been for the holidays? Or is there effectively no precedent and it's up to parents to figure it out? I've tried to research this point prior to posting, and I haven't been able to find anything conclusive.