Hello,
A friend has been separated from time to time and now it seems this time it will be permanent.
There has been domestic violence directed at her within the marriage. The Police have been involved a few times. That may be irrelevant to my question.
At the start of the relationship she had a house with her ex husband that was sold she received $130,000 from that sale.She lived with her current husband (before marriage) in a rental and then she bought a block of land solely with her money it cost $80,000 (rural area.)
She obtained a loan in her name and a house was built.
She sold her car for $20,000 and the money was used to buy a heater etc for the house.
They moved in and were married sometime later. Two of her children were living with them.
She has always worked and contributed to the family finances he has been in and out of work but overall they may have contributed the same amount to the household.
All the services have been in her name (including his mobile phone and car) all payments are from her accounts, she is the only one on the title.
She has been living with her mother for a few months because her step Dad is terminally ill and she is helping. Her husband has been living in the family home.
There is an AVO against him and the police advised her to get him out of the house.
She let him stay for fear of more abuse but he has willingly left now but before he did he changed the locks (lawyers advice as far as I know) but then sent her a message to advise where the key is.
He has been to a lawyer and she received a letter stating he wants the house sold as quickly as possible and once $200,000 mortgage paid the funds are divided as they agree.
I assume she has to give him some proceeds of the sale. He wants 40%.
I am wondering if she is entitled to receive the $100,000 which she contributed to the land and house opposed to his $00000 and then profits divided as they agree.
Also how far can he go with forcing her to sell the house, which she does want to do at some stage but not when he demands.
Bearing in mind she is the only one on the title not sure if that makes a difference.
She won't be moving back in.
The power was in her name but he has managed to have it changed to his name a couple of weeks ago. She called the power company and they advised he told them she had moved out, so she said well I am telling you he has moved out put it back in my name they said they can't unless he agrees..another issue she has to deal with.
I am wondering if the lawyer would have told him to do that to prove he lived there????.
Thank you for reading this and please help if you can. Very much appreciate this forum.
A friend has been separated from time to time and now it seems this time it will be permanent.
There has been domestic violence directed at her within the marriage. The Police have been involved a few times. That may be irrelevant to my question.
At the start of the relationship she had a house with her ex husband that was sold she received $130,000 from that sale.She lived with her current husband (before marriage) in a rental and then she bought a block of land solely with her money it cost $80,000 (rural area.)
She obtained a loan in her name and a house was built.
She sold her car for $20,000 and the money was used to buy a heater etc for the house.
They moved in and were married sometime later. Two of her children were living with them.
She has always worked and contributed to the family finances he has been in and out of work but overall they may have contributed the same amount to the household.
All the services have been in her name (including his mobile phone and car) all payments are from her accounts, she is the only one on the title.
She has been living with her mother for a few months because her step Dad is terminally ill and she is helping. Her husband has been living in the family home.
There is an AVO against him and the police advised her to get him out of the house.
She let him stay for fear of more abuse but he has willingly left now but before he did he changed the locks (lawyers advice as far as I know) but then sent her a message to advise where the key is.
He has been to a lawyer and she received a letter stating he wants the house sold as quickly as possible and once $200,000 mortgage paid the funds are divided as they agree.
I assume she has to give him some proceeds of the sale. He wants 40%.
I am wondering if she is entitled to receive the $100,000 which she contributed to the land and house opposed to his $00000 and then profits divided as they agree.
Also how far can he go with forcing her to sell the house, which she does want to do at some stage but not when he demands.
Bearing in mind she is the only one on the title not sure if that makes a difference.
She won't be moving back in.
The power was in her name but he has managed to have it changed to his name a couple of weeks ago. She called the power company and they advised he told them she had moved out, so she said well I am telling you he has moved out put it back in my name they said they can't unless he agrees..another issue she has to deal with.
I am wondering if the lawyer would have told him to do that to prove he lived there????.
Thank you for reading this and please help if you can. Very much appreciate this forum.