Several years ago, my wife contacted her mother to ask about financial help. She knew her siblings had been able to borrow money from their mother basically as an advance drawing from their family inheritance. Her mother agreed to do the same for my wife.
Essentially the personal loan was secured against any future inheritance. A couple of years later, a second much smaller amount was similarly advanced. Her mother (now 87yo) realised recently that her solicitor held no documents on the first advance although there was a document for the second advance. My wife had signed the second document.
The discussions for both advances were entirely between mother and daughter. I was never involved and had no part in deciding or discussing terms and conditions and neither was I entitled to any part of the inheritance. The funds were paid into my wife's bank accounts and all interest payments have been made by my wife from her personal bank accounts. The interest payments have always been met and in fact more interest has been paid than has accrued.
My wife's mother is now wanting to reinstate a document that acknowledges and records the terms of the first loan. However she also insists I should be included as a party to the loan despite the fact I have had nothing to do with either loan.
What is the law? How could I be a party to a debt that I have had no involvement in and which is secured by an inheritance I have no rights to?
Essentially the personal loan was secured against any future inheritance. A couple of years later, a second much smaller amount was similarly advanced. Her mother (now 87yo) realised recently that her solicitor held no documents on the first advance although there was a document for the second advance. My wife had signed the second document.
The discussions for both advances were entirely between mother and daughter. I was never involved and had no part in deciding or discussing terms and conditions and neither was I entitled to any part of the inheritance. The funds were paid into my wife's bank accounts and all interest payments have been made by my wife from her personal bank accounts. The interest payments have always been met and in fact more interest has been paid than has accrued.
My wife's mother is now wanting to reinstate a document that acknowledges and records the terms of the first loan. However she also insists I should be included as a party to the loan despite the fact I have had nothing to do with either loan.
What is the law? How could I be a party to a debt that I have had no involvement in and which is secured by an inheritance I have no rights to?