Hopefully this is a very simple property settlement question to answer, but I can't find the info I am looking for.
I'm curious as to how and when debts are taken into account when an asset split % is agreed upon. eg: Say we have a house that sells for $1 million, and have debts of $300k
The agreement is a 70% / 30% split.
Does the debt get paid off, and then the remaining $300k get split 70% / 30%? ie: $210k to person A, $90k to person B.
Or does the funds get dispersed prior to the debt being paid off, and then the same % in reverse get applied to paying off the debt? ie: From the house sale Person A receives $700k, Person B receives $300k. Debt of $300k - Person A pays $90k (30%), Person B pays $210k (70%)
Leaving Person A with $610k, Person B with $90k. This doesn't seem right, but to be honest not much of this whole process does!
I hope I've worded this correclty, thanks in advance.
I'm curious as to how and when debts are taken into account when an asset split % is agreed upon. eg: Say we have a house that sells for $1 million, and have debts of $300k
The agreement is a 70% / 30% split.
Does the debt get paid off, and then the remaining $300k get split 70% / 30%? ie: $210k to person A, $90k to person B.
Or does the funds get dispersed prior to the debt being paid off, and then the same % in reverse get applied to paying off the debt? ie: From the house sale Person A receives $700k, Person B receives $300k. Debt of $300k - Person A pays $90k (30%), Person B pays $210k (70%)
Leaving Person A with $610k, Person B with $90k. This doesn't seem right, but to be honest not much of this whole process does!
I hope I've worded this correclty, thanks in advance.