Hi,
I'm acting as sort of the middleman witness in a recent report filed to the police on Family Violence. No charges have been placed yet, though I fear the reporting individual might be wrongfully charged. I want to explain further though before I ask for help.
To clarify, I am the son of the reporting individual we will call R. The reported individual we will call M.
R made a report to the police at night that she felt scared, unsafe, and insecure within the premises of her own home directed at M, despite the lack of any physical violence involved at the current time (as I was there). Any arguments involved were mainly verbal with R's mental state appearing worse after conflicting with M.
My question is, would this fall under a false report of Family Violence under family law? If so, what are the extent of the charges held by a false report not created by any sign of malice, but rather a misinterpretation of the situation at hand?
Would appreciate if a quick reply was given.
Thanks.
I'm acting as sort of the middleman witness in a recent report filed to the police on Family Violence. No charges have been placed yet, though I fear the reporting individual might be wrongfully charged. I want to explain further though before I ask for help.
To clarify, I am the son of the reporting individual we will call R. The reported individual we will call M.
R made a report to the police at night that she felt scared, unsafe, and insecure within the premises of her own home directed at M, despite the lack of any physical violence involved at the current time (as I was there). Any arguments involved were mainly verbal with R's mental state appearing worse after conflicting with M.
My question is, would this fall under a false report of Family Violence under family law? If so, what are the extent of the charges held by a false report not created by any sign of malice, but rather a misinterpretation of the situation at hand?
Would appreciate if a quick reply was given.
Thanks.