Just wondering where I stand. My property is for sale and has lease land at the rear of it. Since placing my house on the market, the lease holder has rung my real estate agent saying to take the ads down as he believed the wording was false advertising.
In no way did it say 'jump the fence and access the land behind it'. It was represented as water activities and views within a stones throw of the house. Now he is marking out a fence (which is fine, it's replacing an existing one that hasn't been there for ten years) but has also put signage up at the back of my house saying private property but not along the back of any of the other five houses.
Should this signage be placed at the rear of other houses also? And if it impedes the sale of my house, as he is directly signalling it to potential buyers, do I have any grounds to recoup losses under property law?
In no way did it say 'jump the fence and access the land behind it'. It was represented as water activities and views within a stones throw of the house. Now he is marking out a fence (which is fine, it's replacing an existing one that hasn't been there for ten years) but has also put signage up at the back of my house saying private property but not along the back of any of the other five houses.
Should this signage be placed at the rear of other houses also? And if it impedes the sale of my house, as he is directly signalling it to potential buyers, do I have any grounds to recoup losses under property law?