Say if this fake scenario were to happen:
After arguing & then walking off somebody's property, then challenging the owner who by now is carrying a lump of 4x2. if that owner then attacks the person on the council strip, who is in the wrong? Can this be legally claimed to be the non-owner's fault because they challenged the owner to use the log?
The non-homeowner was swearing & challenging him. The police said that even though the homeowner attacked the non-homeowner on public land that by challenging him, he, therefore, gave the homeowner permission to do that. The police then said that if the non-homeowner wanted to go ahead with the charge of assault then he would lose as he was deemed to be a trespasser.
I thought that this would more be a case of assault with a weapon by the homeowner? Totally confused by this one.
Should the non-homeowner be served an AVO?
Mind you this is a totally fake scenario..
After arguing & then walking off somebody's property, then challenging the owner who by now is carrying a lump of 4x2. if that owner then attacks the person on the council strip, who is in the wrong? Can this be legally claimed to be the non-owner's fault because they challenged the owner to use the log?
The non-homeowner was swearing & challenging him. The police said that even though the homeowner attacked the non-homeowner on public land that by challenging him, he, therefore, gave the homeowner permission to do that. The police then said that if the non-homeowner wanted to go ahead with the charge of assault then he would lose as he was deemed to be a trespasser.
I thought that this would more be a case of assault with a weapon by the homeowner? Totally confused by this one.
Should the non-homeowner be served an AVO?
Mind you this is a totally fake scenario..