Hello,
This site is a great resource, thanks to all the contributors for the help.
On to my question, well set of questions, starting with this one:
Situation: ex-wife father dies in the year before separation date, with notification that ex-wife will receive substantial portion of the estate (the husband was not named in the Will), including a house in another country (NZ) of considerable value, along with motor vehicles etc that can easily be liquidated for cash. The property in total was liquidated after separation by the ex-wife. The value of the assets were not fully or legally ascertained at the time of separation (as they were still part of the execution process of the Will). The husband was not notified or involved with any part of this process.
This site is a great resource, thanks to all the contributors for the help.
On to my question, well set of questions, starting with this one:
Situation: ex-wife father dies in the year before separation date, with notification that ex-wife will receive substantial portion of the estate (the husband was not named in the Will), including a house in another country (NZ) of considerable value, along with motor vehicles etc that can easily be liquidated for cash. The property in total was liquidated after separation by the ex-wife. The value of the assets were not fully or legally ascertained at the time of separation (as they were still part of the execution process of the Will). The husband was not notified or involved with any part of this process.
- What exactly, in WA, are identifiable as assets from an inheritance, that must be reported today, now almost 2 years after separation? I understand this is likely to be a question that cannot be answered specifically, but I need to ask anyway.
- Although the inheritance assets were known about before separation by both parties (by knowledge of the contents of the Will), and a general idea about their value known at the time by both parties, is their value still attributable to the marital estate, before any actual value is attributed by sale or receipt of proceeds? If not, why?
- Can the estate legally be liquidated by the ex-wife without the knowledge of the husband, whom may likely have some claim over that estate, and during which time there was a proper process of negotiation taking place? The negotiation process excluded all reference to the estate and any proceeds by the ex-wife.
- Could a lien/caveat have been placed over the property in the other country, if the details of that property were provide to the husband at that time?
- Can a person legally withhold information about assets from an inheritance, such as might be considered shared marital assets at the time, or any time in the future?
- Can a lien/caveat or Court Order be sought over the proceeds (a bank account balance) of the property proceeds NOW, in the possible event that part of that estate could be paid in the husbands favour at some stage in the future?