My previous partner has requested an independent valuation of my home (that she resided in and contributed costs towards via shared financial accounts) for the purpose of financial settlement. However, my concern is this request came approx six months after separation and after she and I had both agreed to a value in the Financial Disclosure Balance Sheet.
It is my understanding (I could be completely wrong) that the Balance Sheet is binding if both parties have agreed on the value, unless one party can demonstrate the other party misled them.
Is anyone able to confirm this? And do you have any references? Thanks!
It is my understanding (I could be completely wrong) that the Balance Sheet is binding if both parties have agreed on the value, unless one party can demonstrate the other party misled them.
Is anyone able to confirm this? And do you have any references? Thanks!