Hi all! Does anyone have any general knowledge about property settlements for two people who, while not technically poor, own nothing outright and - rather than an asset pool that needs to be divided - they just have a selection of random debts as far as the eye can see?
They (A and B) are separated and each paying towards the various debts they have in their own names (acquired by both during their 16 year marriage).
B continues to pay A an amount towards the joint mortgage, which is in negative equity (A lives in the house while B rents).
A refuses to sell the house but cannot afford to get a home loan in their name alone. If B stops paying the additional amount the loan will likely fall in arrears and be sold by the bank - likely at a greater loss than if A and B were proactive and sold the house ASAP.
A wants to take B to court for a "property" settlement because A doesn't think it's fair that A has more debt than B. A reasons that if more general debt fell to B, A could afford the home loan in their own name and would not have to sell the house.
A significant portion of A's debt is a car loan for a fairly flash car. Would a court ever transfer some of that debt to B rather than A being obligated to sell the flash car and replace it with something more modest in order to reduce the debt?
B wants to sell the house and have a "clean break" as much as possible. B would like to avoid falling into legal debt on top of the existing debts.
Does anyone know how a court would call this situation? Do people with no assets really go to court for a property settlement to split debts?
They (A and B) are separated and each paying towards the various debts they have in their own names (acquired by both during their 16 year marriage).
B continues to pay A an amount towards the joint mortgage, which is in negative equity (A lives in the house while B rents).
A refuses to sell the house but cannot afford to get a home loan in their name alone. If B stops paying the additional amount the loan will likely fall in arrears and be sold by the bank - likely at a greater loss than if A and B were proactive and sold the house ASAP.
A wants to take B to court for a "property" settlement because A doesn't think it's fair that A has more debt than B. A reasons that if more general debt fell to B, A could afford the home loan in their own name and would not have to sell the house.
A significant portion of A's debt is a car loan for a fairly flash car. Would a court ever transfer some of that debt to B rather than A being obligated to sell the flash car and replace it with something more modest in order to reduce the debt?
B wants to sell the house and have a "clean break" as much as possible. B would like to avoid falling into legal debt on top of the existing debts.
Does anyone know how a court would call this situation? Do people with no assets really go to court for a property settlement to split debts?