Hello,
Situation:
Wife inherited money from her grandmother who expressly wanted to provide for her. She purchased a 3 bedroom home in 1995 with this money and a mortgage. She lived in the house for a couple of years, then rented it out till September 2003 when she and her de facto moved into the house because she was pregnant.
Her daughter was born and she continued with her casual work, earning enough to cover mortgage repayments and other household expenses. Her partner was a sandwich hand but actually the son of a well to do professional family. They married in 2005. Her father-in-law told her that a Binding Financial Agreement would not be necessary. She had a son in 2007.
All mortgage payments came from her bank account. Her husband contributed little, worked away most nights as a carer, did no maintenance.
In 2013, they separated under the same roof and in 2015 the divorce was granted. Property settlement has dragged on for nearly three years. How much, if any, claim does he have to her home?
If she paid out the mortgage before final settlement, does it remove or reduce any claim he may have on the property? It would be solely in her name on title without the bank caveat but with a caveat from the ex- and another from her lawyer.
If she took the other party to court for neglect, how would it affect this settlement?
If All the payments on mortgage came only from her bank account, does the ex-husband have any entitlement to the property?
It is the sole asset. No assets were accumulated during the marriage but he accumulated credit card debt. His parents subsided him with regular payments of $1,000 here and there, but he spent none of that on his family.
Any help welcome here. Thanks!
Situation:
Wife inherited money from her grandmother who expressly wanted to provide for her. She purchased a 3 bedroom home in 1995 with this money and a mortgage. She lived in the house for a couple of years, then rented it out till September 2003 when she and her de facto moved into the house because she was pregnant.
Her daughter was born and she continued with her casual work, earning enough to cover mortgage repayments and other household expenses. Her partner was a sandwich hand but actually the son of a well to do professional family. They married in 2005. Her father-in-law told her that a Binding Financial Agreement would not be necessary. She had a son in 2007.
All mortgage payments came from her bank account. Her husband contributed little, worked away most nights as a carer, did no maintenance.
In 2013, they separated under the same roof and in 2015 the divorce was granted. Property settlement has dragged on for nearly three years. How much, if any, claim does he have to her home?
If she paid out the mortgage before final settlement, does it remove or reduce any claim he may have on the property? It would be solely in her name on title without the bank caveat but with a caveat from the ex- and another from her lawyer.
If she took the other party to court for neglect, how would it affect this settlement?
If All the payments on mortgage came only from her bank account, does the ex-husband have any entitlement to the property?
It is the sole asset. No assets were accumulated during the marriage but he accumulated credit card debt. His parents subsided him with regular payments of $1,000 here and there, but he spent none of that on his family.
Any help welcome here. Thanks!