Ok, so I don't have a lawyer and my ex does. It's a family friend of theirs and I believe they're trying to screw me (surprise surprise).
Here's the run down:
She put 17k more into the deposit. I did an intensive reno on the house.We had the house for 3 years and the asset pool is appox. $180k after the sale of the home.
They wrote this as the their first offer:
"That within 14 days following the date of settlement of the sale of the family home, the balance of the proceeds be divided as follows. -
$17,000 to our cilemt, representing the extra funds she injected into the deposit for the purchase of the property.
The balance thereafter to be divided equally between you. "
So, I say OK to the 17k, then we divide the rest. Eg 180 - 17 (goes to her) = 173 (left over) . 173 divided by 2 = 81.5k So I walk with 81.5k and she walks with 81.5 (and the 17k) = 98.5k.
They turn around and say "No, no it's 17k from you, then we divide the 180K which would mean total. I said, "No, it's 17k from the asset pool". They suggested I get a loan. LOL
So they want: 73k to me, 107k to her. That's grossly unfair in my opinion and I believe their letter contradicts that. It clearly says, "the balance of the proceeds be divided as follows".
Why aren't they saying the 17k comes from the asset pool? The other thing is, they want me to sign an authority letter to sign over the deposit from the buyer into their trust account. Do I have to?
They say the settlement can't go ahead without it. I don't want to give them control of any money and the money is currently in the real estate agents trust fund. Do I have to sign the money over to them? Property Settlement is on the 18th of Jan 2017
Thanks in advance and I'm currently getting a lawyer but just wanted to get an opinion from the board too.
Here's the run down:
She put 17k more into the deposit. I did an intensive reno on the house.We had the house for 3 years and the asset pool is appox. $180k after the sale of the home.
They wrote this as the their first offer:
"That within 14 days following the date of settlement of the sale of the family home, the balance of the proceeds be divided as follows. -
$17,000 to our cilemt, representing the extra funds she injected into the deposit for the purchase of the property.
The balance thereafter to be divided equally between you. "
So, I say OK to the 17k, then we divide the rest. Eg 180 - 17 (goes to her) = 173 (left over) . 173 divided by 2 = 81.5k So I walk with 81.5k and she walks with 81.5 (and the 17k) = 98.5k.
They turn around and say "No, no it's 17k from you, then we divide the 180K which would mean total. I said, "No, it's 17k from the asset pool". They suggested I get a loan. LOL
So they want: 73k to me, 107k to her. That's grossly unfair in my opinion and I believe their letter contradicts that. It clearly says, "the balance of the proceeds be divided as follows".
Why aren't they saying the 17k comes from the asset pool? The other thing is, they want me to sign an authority letter to sign over the deposit from the buyer into their trust account. Do I have to?
They say the settlement can't go ahead without it. I don't want to give them control of any money and the money is currently in the real estate agents trust fund. Do I have to sign the money over to them? Property Settlement is on the 18th of Jan 2017
Thanks in advance and I'm currently getting a lawyer but just wanted to get an opinion from the board too.