Hi All,
I have been married for 5 years and I had a house before I met my wife. I have a 25-year mortgage on it and when we met, I was already 15 years in. For the past 5 years I have made the sole contributions to it – I kept her out of it on purpose I was advised that if she had made any contributions to it, she would have a better claim in the event of a divorce. It’s important to note that we bought a house together and have made 50/50 contributions to it – so it is not like she is paying for one and me the other – I am paying 50% the house we have together and 100% for my previous house.
We have had some issues in the last and have considered divorce. Things are going fine now but it is always in the back on my mind that I need to protect myself if things don’t work out.
I am considering selling it, to help finance our new house. Obviously though I want to protect these assets as much as I can in, we separate in the future. If she agrees to it, can I get something written up legally (and she signs) which says something along the lines of:
[ME] agrees to sell the house in my name and the profits/money made from the house will be re-invested into [OUR] new house. But [SHE] concedes all claims to any monetary claims on this house in the event of a separation.
Something to that affect and will it hold up in court if the worst happens? Essentially, I want her to say she has no claim to it at all and if we were to separate, I would like it to be legally enforced that this money would go straight to me and is left OUT of the asset pool when the financial settlement is considered.
Thanks in advance
I have been married for 5 years and I had a house before I met my wife. I have a 25-year mortgage on it and when we met, I was already 15 years in. For the past 5 years I have made the sole contributions to it – I kept her out of it on purpose I was advised that if she had made any contributions to it, she would have a better claim in the event of a divorce. It’s important to note that we bought a house together and have made 50/50 contributions to it – so it is not like she is paying for one and me the other – I am paying 50% the house we have together and 100% for my previous house.
We have had some issues in the last and have considered divorce. Things are going fine now but it is always in the back on my mind that I need to protect myself if things don’t work out.
I am considering selling it, to help finance our new house. Obviously though I want to protect these assets as much as I can in, we separate in the future. If she agrees to it, can I get something written up legally (and she signs) which says something along the lines of:
[ME] agrees to sell the house in my name and the profits/money made from the house will be re-invested into [OUR] new house. But [SHE] concedes all claims to any monetary claims on this house in the event of a separation.
Something to that affect and will it hold up in court if the worst happens? Essentially, I want her to say she has no claim to it at all and if we were to separate, I would like it to be legally enforced that this money would go straight to me and is left OUT of the asset pool when the financial settlement is considered.
Thanks in advance