D
Deleted member 27711
Guest
Hi everyone
I am seeking advice for myself and at least four others who have been accused of breach of NDA and threatened with ligation proceedings if we do not comply with demands.
We used a chat application authorized on company group to socialize and occasionally air out grievances with management decisions and the client base. The group chat was known to senior staff and middle management. All members of the chat were covered under NDA even two former employees who resigned their position after the group chat was made.
Edit: When upper management became aware of this chat they took screen shot records of everything and then made the claims that NDA had been breached.
No monetary damages or damages to reputation have occurred as a result of anything discussed among us.
Can this company legally sue all of us when no damages of any form have occurred, and no information has ever been shared with a third party not legally accountable for its safekeeping.
Will agreeing to the demands by and signing an undertaking be seen as an admission of guilt to be used in future litigation?
Edit: Feel free to ask any questions about any of the specifics, I will do my best to answer them.
I am seeking advice for myself and at least four others who have been accused of breach of NDA and threatened with ligation proceedings if we do not comply with demands.
We used a chat application authorized on company group to socialize and occasionally air out grievances with management decisions and the client base. The group chat was known to senior staff and middle management. All members of the chat were covered under NDA even two former employees who resigned their position after the group chat was made.
Edit: When upper management became aware of this chat they took screen shot records of everything and then made the claims that NDA had been breached.
No monetary damages or damages to reputation have occurred as a result of anything discussed among us.
Can this company legally sue all of us when no damages of any form have occurred, and no information has ever been shared with a third party not legally accountable for its safekeeping.
Will agreeing to the demands by and signing an undertaking be seen as an admission of guilt to be used in future litigation?
Edit: Feel free to ask any questions about any of the specifics, I will do my best to answer them.
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