Haven't been able to get a clear answer here or online. My ex and I haven't finalised our property settlement (there's zero incentive for her to settle since she has 99% of the property already). I have recently discovered that we have either exceeded the 12 month period since the divorce, or we are nearly there, depending on the definition. I am still confused about exactly when a divorce becomes 'finalised'. Our divorce hearing was on the 18th of August 2020. Therefore it's almost 2 weeks past the one year mark. However, my understanding was that a divorce is only final 30 days AFTER the hearing date. But when I look at the Comm Courts portal, the application says '18 August 2020' under the column "finalised". However, in the divorce orders themselves, they say:
THE COURT ORDERS:
6. A divorce order be made, such divorce order to take effect and thereby terminate the marriage on the
nineteenth day of September 2020
Should I take it to mean that I have until September 19th 2021 at the very latest to file for property orders? I'm planning to self-represent given our asset pool is relatively small, no house, just minor chattels and super.
Out of interest, does anyone know just how difficult it is to file outside of the 12 month period? I understand you need to prove hardship and/or good reasons. Are these symbolic barriers to discourage late filing or are the courts quite strict on adhering to that? Or is it going to be yet another case of each judge has their own way of handling things...?
THE COURT ORDERS:
6. A divorce order be made, such divorce order to take effect and thereby terminate the marriage on the
nineteenth day of September 2020
Should I take it to mean that I have until September 19th 2021 at the very latest to file for property orders? I'm planning to self-represent given our asset pool is relatively small, no house, just minor chattels and super.
Out of interest, does anyone know just how difficult it is to file outside of the 12 month period? I understand you need to prove hardship and/or good reasons. Are these symbolic barriers to discourage late filing or are the courts quite strict on adhering to that? Or is it going to be yet another case of each judge has their own way of handling things...?