My workplace (I've been employed here for over a year) has referred to my current employment contract as a "fixed-term contract", but given that it contains a termination clause I believe it's considered to be a "maximum-term contract".
The end date is 31-Dec '15, and they're wanting to terminate the contract early primarily due to a company restructure, but are claiming that it's not a redundancy. They're suggesting that no grounds for termination are required - could this be possible, or should it be a redundancy under employment law?
"We can terminate your employment by giving you notice in writing with a notice period of 6 weeks."
I could understand no redundancy if it was an actual fixed-term contract, but then they'd be in a position to have to pay me out until the end date.
Any advice would be appreciated.
The end date is 31-Dec '15, and they're wanting to terminate the contract early primarily due to a company restructure, but are claiming that it's not a redundancy. They're suggesting that no grounds for termination are required - could this be possible, or should it be a redundancy under employment law?
"We can terminate your employment by giving you notice in writing with a notice period of 6 weeks."
I could understand no redundancy if it was an actual fixed-term contract, but then they'd be in a position to have to pay me out until the end date.
Any advice would be appreciated.
