I brought a property in 2004. In the contract of sale there was a prevision for a right of way for a nieghbouring property as he owned both. He was to complete all paperwork and submit it at his own cost.
Since this was never acted on it was never sent to Land titles. Nothing has been completed. He has since sold the property but after he had done sold it, he started requesting the right of way and has placed a caveat on our property until we agree (in 2011).
Today his lawyer advised that we will be taking the matter to court. The new owner is subdividing the property.
Do I have to give the right of way to him even though he doesn't own the block and there was nothing in the original contract saying that agreement would go to the new owner?
Since this was never acted on it was never sent to Land titles. Nothing has been completed. He has since sold the property but after he had done sold it, he started requesting the right of way and has placed a caveat on our property until we agree (in 2011).
Today his lawyer advised that we will be taking the matter to court. The new owner is subdividing the property.
Do I have to give the right of way to him even though he doesn't own the block and there was nothing in the original contract saying that agreement would go to the new owner?