Can anyone tell me what happens if consent orders are not sort before the cut off of 2 years for de facto separation? I understand that leave can be applied for, and not always granted, other than that and cost what becomes the issues, e.g. is it harder to for the party not living in the jointly owned home to claim rights?
Another curly question is with regards to property. My partner split with his ex 13 years ago, at he time signed a Form 11 in relation to property they jointly owned. He took a small financial and property settlement and signed to waive all rights and any future claim to the property. They got back together a few years later and had 2 kids.
They lived in the same property together for about 2 years which he financially contributed to, then they moved to another house they purchased, kept the one in her name as an investment property for another few years. When the property was sold she put the proceeds, about 250k, into their family home mortgage.
Now they are dividing assets, given the original form 11, does the 250k come off the top of the asset pool (or as she wants given back to her) or would this be considered to be included she contributed the money willingly?
Could it be that she be offered say 5% on her split to cover this contribution. She is currently claiming an 80/20 split of assets after the 250k is taken out. Surely the courts won't see this as 'fair and reasonable'?
Another curly question is with regards to property. My partner split with his ex 13 years ago, at he time signed a Form 11 in relation to property they jointly owned. He took a small financial and property settlement and signed to waive all rights and any future claim to the property. They got back together a few years later and had 2 kids.
They lived in the same property together for about 2 years which he financially contributed to, then they moved to another house they purchased, kept the one in her name as an investment property for another few years. When the property was sold she put the proceeds, about 250k, into their family home mortgage.
Now they are dividing assets, given the original form 11, does the 250k come off the top of the asset pool (or as she wants given back to her) or would this be considered to be included she contributed the money willingly?
Could it be that she be offered say 5% on her split to cover this contribution. She is currently claiming an 80/20 split of assets after the 250k is taken out. Surely the courts won't see this as 'fair and reasonable'?